How Did Christ “Fulfill” The Law Of Moses?
Categories: Bible Questions and AnswersA querist asks, “In studying Matthew 5:17, and other passages of Scripture, I know there are several reasons why we are no longer under the law of Moses, but how did Christ fulfill that law?”
Our Lord “fulfilled” (completed or accomplished the demands of) the Mosaic system of law by fulfilling the over 300 Old Testament prophecies which foretold His birth, His life, His mission, and ultimately His death (Luke 24:44-48; cf. Psalm 22:1-31; Isaiah 53:1-12).
The Mosaic law was a strict and demanding law. Not only did it require perfect obedience, but imposed a curse upon those who could not fulfill its requirements (Gal. 3:10).
Because He knew no sin (1 Peter 2:21-22; cf. Hebrews 4:15), Christ was the only “Man” to perfectly fulfill the law’s strict requirements, thus qualifying Himself as our perfect mediator (1 Timothy 2:5) and advocate (1 John 2:1). Not only did He “fulfill” the demands of the law of Moses, He “redeemed” man from its curse (Gal. 3:13; cf. Romans 8:3), and thus “delivered” us from that law (Romans 7:6). He accomplished this by becoming our perfect “sin-offering” (2 Corinthians 5:21; cf. Hebrews 9:28; 1 Peter 2:21-24; 1 John 3:5).
Thus, the law of Moses having been “fulfilled,” is not a law for mankind today. It has been superseded by the New Testament “law to Christ” – the “perfect law of liberty” (1 Corinthians 9:21-KJV; James 1:25).
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